Question of the Month – October 2018 This question was submitted by Deepa Kattail and Anjana Kundu. If you would like to submit a future question, please send it to Franklin Chiao at [email protected].A previously healthy 16 year old, 60 kg female with a diagnosis of CRPS type I after a right ankle sprain while skiing 6 months ago presents to your pain clinic. Although the edema, purplish discoloration and cold foot and ankle seen 1-2 weeks after the injury have subsided, allodynia and intense pain of the entire right lower extremity persist. She is unable to bear weight on that leg and has been wheelchair bound at this point. All imaging studies were normal after the initial injury. Despite regular physical therapy and compliance with her oral medication regimen (gabapentin, amitriptyline, acetaminophen, ibuprofen and hydromorphone as needed) she continues to have severe excruciating pain interfering with school attendance, sleep, ambulation and is limiting progress with PT. An assessment by the pediatric pain psychologist did not reveal any major mental health concerns except some reactive depression. A lumbar sympathetic block performed during earlier phase, failed to provide any analgesia despite obvious signs of sympathetic blockade. She and her family are desperate to get some pain relief, want help with being able to participate in PT more aggressively and seek other options for pain control. Which option, supported by current guidelines, would be most appropriate at this time? A. Add fentanyl patches to her analgesic regimen B. Intravenous ketamine infusion 0.1-0.3 mg/kg/hr administered as 4-5 hour infusions over several days C. Intravenous morphine infusion 0.1 mg/kg/hr administered as 4-5 hour infusions over several days D. Tell the family that there are no further options for management None Time's up
Question of the Month – September 2018 Ex 34-week infant who was born to a mother with a history of severe Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) and chronic pain on chronic opioid therapy. Throughout her pregnancy, the mother was on methadone 15mg TID, and PRN hydrocodone/acetaminophen (dose weaned from 100 mg/day earlier in pregnancy to 30mg/day in an attempt to limit fetal exposure). The inpatient pain service was consulted for evaluation and treatment of NAS and ongoing pain issues. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Immediately starting an opioid infusion is necessary (b) Neonatal abstinence syndrome presents with unreliable symptoms making diagnosis challenging (c) Acetaminophen is not considered safe in this patient age group. (d) Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a potential diagnosis and likely causing pain None Time's up